case study questions class 10 social science 2021 22

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Case Study Questions Download Free PDF

If you are looking for the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Case Study Questions in PDF, then you are in the right place. CBSE 10th Class Case Study for the Social Science Subject is available here. These Case studies can help the students to solve the different types of questions that are based on the case study.

The Social Science Subject case study for class 10th covers a wide range of chapters from the Social Science. Students willing to score good marks in their board exams can use it. The questions are highly interactive and it allows students to use their thoughts and skills to solve such kinds of questions.

CBSE 10th Social Science Exam 2022-23 : Case Study Questions With Answers

In class 10th board exams 2023, students will observe new types of case study questions. For the first time, the board introduced the case study questions in the board exam. we have provided the chapter-wise case study question with answers.

The above  Case studies for Class 10 Social Science  will help you to boost your scores as Case Study questions have been coming in your examinations. These CBSE Class 10 Social Science Case Study’s have been developed by experienced teachers of  cbseexpert.com  for benefit of Class 10 students.

• Class 10th Maths Case Study Questions
• Class 10th Science Case Study Questions

For CBSE Class 10, the board has decided to introduce a minimum of 30 percent competency-based questions in form of case study questions, MCQs, source-based integrated questions, etc. in the new exam pattern 2022-2023. Therefore, students should make themselves familiar with the case study questions to learn the right process for approaching these new types of questions with accuracy.

Case Study Type Questions in Social Science Class 10

Case Study Type Questions in Social Science Class 10 include the information or data. Students willing to solve them are required to read the passage carefully and then solve them. While solving the paragraph the ideal way is to highlight the key information or given data.

Because later it will ease them to write the final answers. Science Case study type questions consist of 4 to 5 questions that should be answered in an MCQ manner. 

While reading the paragraph students will get the clue in between about the possible answer of the question. They should definitely highlight those questions. This is the best way to solve such kind of Case study Type Questions.

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Class 10 Social Science Case Study Questions for PDF Download

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Are you a Class 10 student studying Social Science? Do you find Class 10 Social Science Case Study Questions challenging and need some extra practice? Look no further! In this article, we will provide you with a comprehensive collection of case study questions specifically designed for Class 10 Social Science . These questions will help you enhance your understanding of the subject and improve your performance in exams. So, let’s dive in and explore the world of case study questions!

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Case study questions are an integral part of the Social Science curriculum in Class 10. They require students to analyze a real-life situation or scenario and apply their knowledge of various concepts and principles to understand and solve the problem at hand. Case study questions are designed to assess students’ critical thinking, analytical skills, and ability to connect theoretical concepts with practical situations.

If you want to want to prepare all the tough, tricky & difficult questions for your upcoming exams, this is where you should hang out.  CBSE Case Study Questions for Class 10  will provide you with detailed, latest, comprehensive & confidence-inspiring solutions to the maximum number of Case Study Questions covering all the topics from your  NCERT Text Books !.

Table of Contents

Case Study Questions CBSE 10th Social Science

Case study questions play a vital role in Social Science as they enable students to develop a deep understanding of the subject. By analyzing real-life case studies, students can grasp the complexities of social, political, economic, and geographical issues. Case studie s provide a practical context for learning and allow students to apply their theoretical knowledge to real-world scenarios. They also help students develop problem-solving and decision-making skills, which are essential for their future endeavors.

Chapterwise Case Study Questions for CBSE Class 10 Social Science

In board exams, students will find the questions based on assertion and reasoning. Also, there will be a few questions based on case studies. In that, a paragraph will be given, and then the MCQ questions based on it will be asked.

The above  Case studies for Class 10 Social Science  will help you to boost your scores as Case Study questions have been coming in your examinations. These CBSE Class 10 Social Science Case Studies have been developed by experienced teachers of schools.studyrate.in for benefit of Class 10 students.

• Class 10th Maths Case Study Questions
• Class 10th Science Case Study Questions

For CBSE Class 10, the board has decided to introduce a minimum of 30 percent competency-based questions in form of case study questions, MCQs, source-based integrated questions, etc. in the new exam pattern. Therefore, students should make themselves familiar with the case study questions to learn the right process for approaching these new types of questions with accuracy.

How to Approach Case Study Questions

To effectively tackle case study questions, it is crucial to follow a systematic approach. Here’s a step-by-step guide to help you approach and answer case study questions:

Step 1: Read the Case Study Carefully Start by reading the case study thoroughly and understanding the context, characters, and key issues involved. Highlight or underline important information that will be useful in answering the questions.

Step 2: Identify the Problem or Objective Determine the central problem or objective presented in the case study. This will help you focus your analysis and provide relevant answers.

Step 3: Analyze the Case Study Break down the case study into different components and analyze each aspect individually. Identify relevant concepts, theories, and principles that are applicable to the situation.

Step 4: Apply Your Knowledge Use your understanding of the subject and the concepts learned in class to analyze the case study. Connect the theoretical concepts to the practical situation and provide logical explanations or solutions.

Step 5: Support Your Answers with Evidence Back up your answers with evidence from the case study or additional research. This will add credibility to your responses and showcase a deeper understanding of the topic.

Step 6: Present Your Answers Clearly Organize your answers in a structured manner, ensuring clarity and coherence. Use proper headings, paragraphs, and bullet points to make your answers more readable and understandable.

Tips for Answering Case Study Questions

When answering case study questions, keep the following tips in mind:

• Read the question carefully and understand its requirements.
• Use headings and subheadings to organize your answers effectively.
• Support your answers with relevant facts, examples, and evidence.
• Use clear and concise language to convey your thoughts.
• Revise and proofread your answers for clarity, grammar, and spelling.

MCQ Questions on Class 10 Social Science

Mcq questions for class 10 social science history.

• The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Class 10 MCQ Questions
• The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Nationalism in India Class 10 MCQ Questions
• The Making of Global World Class 10 MCQ Questions
• The Age of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Work, Life and Leisure Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Print Culture and the Modern World Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Novels, Society and History Class 10 MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Geography

• Resources and Development Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Forest and Wildlife Resources Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Water Resources Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Agriculture Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Minerals and Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Civics

• Power Sharing Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Federalism Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Democracy and Diversity Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Gender Religion and Caste Class 10 MCQ questions
• Popular Struggles and Movements Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Political Parties Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Outcomes of Democracy Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Challenges to Democracy Class 10 MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Economics

• Development Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Sectors of Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Money and Credit Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Globalisation and the Indian Economy Class 10 MCQ Questions
• Consumer Rights Class 10 MCQ Questions

Case study questions are a valuable tool for learning and assessing your understanding of Social Science. By practicing these questions, you can strengthen your analytical skills, critical thinking abilities, and subject knowledge. Remember to approach case study questions systematically, apply your knowledge effectively, and present your answers in a clear and organized manner. With regular practice and a solid understanding of the subject, you will excel in answering case study questions and achieve success in your Class 10 Social Science exams.

FAQs on Class 10 Social Science Case Study Questions

Q: where can i download the pdf with the case study questions.

A: You can download the PDF with the case study questions by clicking the following link

Q: Are these case study questions based on the latest syllabus for Class 10 Social Science?

A: Yes, these case study questions are designed based on the latest syllabus for Class 10 Social Science.

Q: Is it necessary to practice case study questions for Social Science?

A: Practicing case study questions is highly recommended as it enhances your critical thinking, problem-solving, and analytical skills. It also helps you develop a deeper understanding of the subject by applying theoretical concepts to real-life situations.

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Home > CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Papers > CBSE Class 10 SST Previous Year Papers

Download CBSE Class 10 Social Science 2022 Previous Year Papers

Download cbse class 10 sst term-1 & term-2 previous question papers 2022 pdf.

Social Science can be a tough subject for many students because it has a vast syllabus comprising 4 NCERT textbooks! However, if you understand the concepts of the individual subjects clearly, you can score good marks in your exams. For this, you need proper resources and we are here to offer you all of them.

So, to help the students who choose Mathematics Basic, we have brought the available Previous Year Papers for the subject. But before you download the Social Science papers, read and understand the pattern of the paper in a better way Class 10 Social Science Term-1 & Term-2 2022 Question Papers .

Term-2 Previous Year Paper Pattern

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science (Term-1) 2021-22 Set - 13 Sample Question Papers With Marking Scheme

Cbse class 10 social science (term-1) 2021-22 set - 13 sample papers with marking scheme.

CBSE has released the Class 10 Social Science (Term-1) 2021-22 Set - 13 Sample Papers along with a marking scheme. The announced sample papers of CBSE Class 10th are based on the latest and revised Syllabus . In the beginning of the 2021-22 academic session the board decided to revise the class 10th syllabus and exam pattern. They did it to tackle any unpredictable future causes due to the COVID Pandemic. Therefore, after going through the NCERT Textbooks, it is an ideal way to be through with the latest CBSE sample paper class 10 Social Science (Term-1) 2021-22 Set - 13 term 1. 

Here on this page we have provided those model question papers to download for free of cost.

CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 All Subjects

CBSE Sample Papers for class 10 all subjects including Mathematics, Science, Social Science, etc. can be downloaded from this website. The board has released these to enable students to know about the exam pattern, types of questions, level of difficulties, etc. Therefore, those tenth standard students willing to score more marks in the board should solve all sets of model questions papers. 

It will make them confident to appear in the board examination. Along with that they can easily revise their learnings through it.

CBSE Sample Question Papers Class 10  Social Science (Term-1) 2021-22 Set - 13 Term 1 PDF

Practicing CBSE Sample Question Papers Class 10 Social Science (Term-1) 2021-22 Set - 13 Term 1 allows students to be well versed with the strategies they need to tackle the questions papers in the board exam with ease. It also makes them aware of the distributions of marks among the questions. Since, in the Term 1 exam the CBSE will be asking the General MCQs, Case Study Based, and Assertion and Reason questions, so it is vital for the candidates to solve the given sample papers as much as possible to practice these types of problems.

One of the best methods to prepare for the board exams is to be thorough with the prescribed textbooks and solve the questions papers as much as possible. Therefore, to help the candidates in their preparation process, we have provided here the PDF file format of CBSE Sample Paper 2021-22 for Class 10 Term 1 Released by the exam conducting body.

Class 10 Marking Scheme For Term 1 Exam 2021

The Term 1 board exam will be conducted only for 90 minutes in which multiple choice types of questions will be given. For each correct answer students will be rewarded 1 mark, there are no negative marks in CBSE term 1 board exam. To know all this information along with other info candidates are advised to solve the Sample Question Papers released by the CBSE Board with Marking Scheme. Marking scheme is a set of answers for all the questions given in the model questions papers. It provides step by step answers to the questions available in the term sample papers of term 1 exam.

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CBSE Class 10 social science exam 2021-22 concludes; Check paper analysis

CBSE Class 10 social science exam has concluded today. The first paper of CBSE term 1 exam started at 11:30 am. Check paper analysis here.

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NEW DELHI: Central Board of Secondary Education has conducted the CBSE Class 10 term 1 exam today on November 30, 2021. The CBSE Class 10 social science exam 2021-22 was held from 11:30 am to 1:00 pm in offline mode. Register here for latest CBSE Class 10 Term 1 Exam updates Also, check: CBSE Class 10 Science Exam 2021-22 Live Updates Also, Read | CBSE Class 10 Term 1 Exam Pattern 2021-22: Know number of questions and total marks

New: CBSE 10th Date Sheet 2024 PDF |  CBSE Class 10 Admit Card Released

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CBSE Class 10 social science exam 2021-22: Paper analysis

As per The TimesNow News, the CBSE Class 10 social science paper was moderately tough. The questions from the Geography section were tougher than the History.

@cbseindia29 @dpradhanbjp @DG_NTA Question 40 of sst term 1 st CBSE Board examination has two same options... Please have a look on it... And please inform us about concerned matter.. pic.twitter.com/fJ6dKbaHIE — Mohd. Nawaz (@MohdNaw44777675) November 30, 2021

Parveen Shaikh, Principal, The Somaiya School says that CBSE has developed a user-friendly system along with trained heads. The principal lauded the efforts of board officials for resolving queries quickly.

Parveen said the social science paper had a mix of questions covering all the subjects.

Meanwhile, the Principal expressed that students are satisfied with the offline examination as they are appearing for the board exam in their concerned schools.

Swapnil Gupta, a class 10 student of Kendriya Vidyalaya, Masjid Moth described the Class 10 social science paper as balanced. As per the student, the objective type question paper was quite easy and students who prepare from NCERT books can expect good score.

Another student also maintained that NCERT books can help them to score well in the CBSE 10th board exams.

The CBSE social science/SST paper carries 40 marks and students were given 90 minutes of time to complete the first paper of CBSE board exams.

The MCQ-based social science paper consists of 4 sections. As per the CBSE paper format, section-A had 24 questions and out of them, students needed to attempt only 20 questions.

In section B, students had to complete 18 questions out of 22 questions. In section C, out of 12 case study based questions, only 10 had to be answered. While section D consisted of 2 map-based compulsory questions.

CBSE Class 10 board exams for major subjects will conclude on December 11, 2021. The Class 12 exam will be held from December 1 to December 22, 2021. The question paper for term 1 is based on 50 per cent of the rationalised CBSE syllabus. Students are being given 20 minutes for reading the question paper instead of 15 minutes.

Students must note that each question carries equal marks and there will be no negative marking for incorrect responses. CBSE will hold board exams for term 2 in March/April 2022. The CBSE term 2 Class 12th board exam will have a mix of case-based, situation-based, open-ended short answer, long answer type questions. The final result will be declared in May 2022.

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CBSE Class 10 Board Exam 2021 Live Updates: Check term 1 sample paper, answer key, date sheet

CBSE Class 10th 2022 term 1 exam has been concluded today at 1 pm with the Social Science paper. Check paper analysis, answer key, date sheet, time table, CBSE 10th exam updates here.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Term 1 Question Paper 2021 with Answer Key

Get here the class 10 social science question paper (term 1) in pdf. also, know the level of questions, students' reactions and check answer key by experts..

The Central Board of Secondary Education, CBSE conducted the first major paper of Class 10, i.e., Social Science on 30th November, 2021. The paper began at 11:30 AM and concluded at 01:00 PM. Question papers were distributed before 11:30 so that students could read the question paper nicely within the 20 minutes reading time. The paper consisted of MCQs only and it was entirely based on the Term 1 syllabus which is 50% of the full syllabus. We have provided below the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Term 1 Paper in PDF format. Answer key of the paper is also provided here which students may refer to for knowing correct answers to all questions given in the Social Science paper.

Also Check: CBSE Class 10 Social Science Term 1 Exam Analysis, Review and Students’ Reaction

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Paper (Code: 087) Term 1 Exam 2021-22

General Instructions:

1. There are total 60 questions. These are divided into four sections.

2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.

3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.

4. Section C has 12 questions (Case based). Attempt any 10 questions.

5. Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.

6. All questions carry equal marks.

7. There is no negative marking.

Maximum Marks: 40 Marks

Time Allowed: 90 Minutes

Given below is a screenshot of the question paper:

1. Industrialisation began in which one of the following European countries in the second half of the eighteenth century?

(a) Germany

(d) England

2. Which type of governments were mainly driven in Europe after the defeat of Napoleon in 1815?

(a) Conservative

(b) Liberal

(c) Federal

3. Which one of the following group of countries collectively defeated Napoleon in 1815?

(a) Britain, Russin, Prussia and Austria

(b) Britain, Russian, Prussia and Australia

(c) Britain, Russia, Netherlands and Germany

(d) Britain, Luxembourg, Germany and Italy

4. In which one of the following countries did the first liberalist-nationalist upheaval take place in July 1830 ?

(b) Germany

(c) England

5. Who among the following remarked "When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold"? (a) Lord Byron

(b) Metternich

(c) Johann Herder

(d) Napoleon

6. Who among the following was the architect for the unification of Germany

(a) Otto von Bismarck

(b) William 1

(c) Frederick III

(d) William II

7. Who among the following had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic during the 1830s ?

(a) Victor Emmanuel I

(b) Victor Emmanuel II

(c) Giuseppe Mazzini

(d) Count Cavour

8. In which one of the following states is overgrazing the main reason for land degradation ?

(a) Maharashtra

(c) Haryana

(d) Uttar Pradesh

9. Identify the soil which ranges from red to brown in colour and saline in nature:

(a) Red soil

(b) Laterite soil

(c) Arid soil

(d) Alluvial soil

10. Which one of the following forces leads to maximum soil erosion in plains ?

(b) Glacier

(c) Running water

(d) Earthquake .

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CBSE Sample Paper 2021-22 for Class 10 SSt with solutions, Teacher’s tips for scoring well in exam tomorrow

CBSE Class 10 Term 1 Board Exam 2022 to be conducted across the country on November 30. Check CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 SSt with solutions as well as paper patter, teacher's tip on scoring well.

Key Highlights

• CBSE Class 10 Term 1 Social Science Exam to be conducted tomorrow - November 30, 2021.
• Check out the CBSE sample paper for Class 10 SSt with solutions, paper pattern and teacher's tips here.

Central Board of Secondary Education, CBSE Class 10 Social Science or SSt Term 1 examination would be conducted tomorrow – November 30, 2021. It is the first major examination that would be conducted by the board. CBSE Board Exams 2022 Term 1 started on November 16, 2021. Check out the CBSE Sample Papers 2021-22 for Class 10 SSt with solutions here. Tips on how to score well in the MCQ paper is also provided by the teachers below.

Read:  CBSE Class 10 Social Science Term 1 Exam 2022: Paper moderately tough, experts review SST Question Paper

CBSE Social Science Term 1 Exam 2022: Paper Pattern, No. of questions explained

CBSE Social Science Term 1 Examination would be of 40 marks and students would get 90 minutes to attempt the paper. There would be internal choice in the question paper. The paper would consist of 4 sections – A, B, C and D. A section would contain 24 questions and students would have to attempt only 20. Section B would contain 22 questions and a total of 18 questions have to be attempted. Section C would have 12 Case Study based questions out of which students have to attempt only 10. As for Section D, it would have 2 map based questions, both mandatory.

Related |  CBSE Sample Paper 2021-22: Class 10 Science sample paper with solution, teachers tips to ace MCQs

Students may please note that all the questions carry equal marks and there is no negative marking. Students would be required to fill the OMR Sheet. Reading time of 20 minutes would be given to the students before the exam begins at 11:30 am.

CBSE Sample Paper 2021-22 – Social Science (SSt) Class 10 with solutions

Cbse term 1 exam 2021: tips to score well in social science mcq exam.

• Read the chapters in NCERT carefully before the examination
• Do not leave the information in the boxes as they are very important for MCQs
• Read the questions carefully before attempting the answers
• In case students are not sure about the answer, select the question with the nearest possible answer as there is no negative marking
• For Case Study based questions, read the questions first and then read the case study
• Remember to recheck your response, this is very very important for all students
• Go through the sample papers shared by CBSE and schools.

More than 16 lakh students would be appearing for the CBSE Class 10 Board Exam 2022 tomorrow. This is the first time the board is conducting the exams in two terms. Term 1 started on November 16 and would end on December 11 for Class 10.

Get latest news and live updates,   Latest Education News , updates from Education Minister, CBSE News and other Board Results

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Social Science Studies for Class 10 is considered to be one of the most important and immensely scoring subjects. And the best way to prepare apart from completing NCERT and reference books is solving CBSE Sample Papers. Here on Ribblu one can get immense collection of Sample Question Papers for Class 10 Social Science Studies in PDF format for free.

Total Papers :

Social Science Studies Topics to be covered for Class 10

• The Rise of Nationalism in Europe
• Nationalism in India
• Resources and Development
• Forest and Wildlife
• Water Resources
• Agriculture
• Minerals and Energy Resources
• Power Sharing
• Democracy and Diversity
• Development
• Sectors of the Indian Economy
• Money and Credit
• The making of a Global World or The Age of Industrialization
• Print Culture and the Modern World
• Manufacturing Industries
• Life Lines of National Economy
• Gender, Religion and Caste
• Popular Struggles and Movements
• Outcome of Democracy
• Challenges to Democracy
• Globalisation and the Indian Economy
• Consumer Rights

Structure of CBSE Social Science Studies Sample Paper for Class 10 is

For Preparation of board exams students can also check out other resource material

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Studies Question Papers

Important Questions for Class 10 Social Science Studies Chapter Wise

Social Science Studies Revision Notes for class 10

Previous Year Question Paper CBSE Class 10 Social Science Studies

Sample Papers of Other Subjects of Class 10

What are CBSE Sample Papers?

Sample papers are mainly a kind of mock tests or model test papers which are prepared in accordance with the latest syllabus and guidelines that are issued by the central board. These examination test papers are designed as the replica of the actual papers that are asked in final examinations. All the marking schemes , number of questions , types of questions asked are followed as per board scheme and are issued to students two or three months before the examinations so that students get enough time to practice.

What is the importance of Sample Papers for Students?

In order to access the level of preparation done by any particular student he or she needs to solve CBSE Sample Papers. These papers are the perfect way to practise for the final board exam. If one wants to have a clear idea of how the final exam papers would be in terms of level of difficulty, time and other aspects then , all students must make sure that they do sample papers once their course revision is finished.

Few benefits of solving CBSE sample papers are given below:

• Gauging Self Performance: Understanding and revising the subject is very good, but unless one attempts the sample paper in the lookalike environment as in board exam, seldom can the student identify and check whether the understanding of all concepts of the subject are complete or not. Once students try the question paper in the same time frame he or she is able to judge the capability of solving the paper in the stipulated time frame. It highlights the weak areas if any and gives students ample amount of time to work on those areas and be better prepared before exams.
• Testing Time Criticality: Knowing is not everything as far as board papers are concerned. Sometimes it happens that in spite of knowing everything a student falls short of time to complete the entire paper and thus loses marks. Generally CBSE sample papers are generally of 3 hour duration. So while practicing sample papers it is imperative to create a board like environment at home and ensure that sample paper is attempted only in 3 hours and then check whether it was possible to complete the paper in the desired amount of time. Often at first students take longer than expected, and thus they get early warning to practice more and increase the speed.
• Exam Anxiety: Sometimes sensitive students feel anxious to sit in the examination hall with a 3 hour length paper and for them it becomes a more intense requirement to practice prior to main exams and get rid of any kind of fear. Since they do not know what questions will be asked in the CBSE board they create panic in their mind due to this fear of the unknown and get scared with the idea that they might not be able to do well in exams. Thus such students needs to complete at-least 7-10 sample papers prior to the exams, to gain confidence and get into better frame of mind.

Best Time to Practice Sample Papers

This mainly varies from student to student but in general students should start dealing with sample papers as soon as their book revisions are over. Infact along with sample papers students should also look for model test papers of various publishers and attempt them to get the idea of level of preparation. As the dates of exam are approaching near by that time only samples papers should be mainly considered for practice and in case of any shortcomings those should be thoroughly discussed with teachers freids and other concerned person so that one has clarity before attempting the final paper.

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Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - Class 10 PDF Download

Time: 90 minutes.

General Instructions: Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:

• The Question Paper contains four sections.
• Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
• Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
• Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
• Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
• All questions carry equal marks.
• There is no negative marking.

Section - A

Q.1: Who among the following was the founder of ‘Young Europe’ underground secret society in Berne? (a) Giuseppe Garibaldi (b) Giuseppe Mazzini (c) Count Cavour (d) Otto Von Bismark

Correct Answer is Option (b). Giuseppe formed this society to transform Italy into a united republican state.

Q.2: Which of the following was the result of the Act of Union, 1707? (a) Unification of Germany (b) Unification of the kingdom of Great Britain (c) Unification of Italy (d) Unification of Vietnam

Correct Answer is Option (b). The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’ after which England was able to impose its influence on Scotland.

Q.3: Identify the correct statement with regard to the ‘Zollverein’ from the following options (a) It was a coalition of Prussian states formed to manage political alliances. (b) Its aim was to bind the Prussia politically into an association. (c) It was a customs union at the initiative of Prussia. (d) It helped to awaken and raise national sentiment in Europe.

Correct Answer is Option (c). Zollverein was a customs union formed in 1834 at the initiative of Prussia. It abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies from over thirty to two.

Q.4: Which of the following countries were involved in the Three Wars with Prussia and ended with victory and unification of Germany? (a) Austria, Poland and France (b) Austria, Denmark and France (c) Austria, Turkey and France (d) Austria, England and France

Correct Answer is Option (b). Prussia emerged victorious after fighting three wars over seven years against the combined forces of Austria, Denmark and France and the process of unification of Germany was completed.

Q.5: Identify the ideology under which people demanded freedom of markets in early- nineteenth century Europe. (a) Romanticism (b) Liberalism (c) Socialism (d) Rationalism

Correct Answer is Option (b). Among all the other options liberalism is the correct one as it stands for equality and freedom that protects individual’s democratic right.

Q.6: Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in: (a) Groundnut- Assam (b) Tea- Gujarat (c) Coffee- Karnataka (d) Sugarcane – Chhattisgarh

Correct Answer is Option (c). (i) Groundnut grows in Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, etc. (ii) Tea grows in Assam, West Bengal and Tamil Nadu, etc. (iii) Coffee grows in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, etc. (iv) Sugarcane grows in Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra and Karnataka, etc.

Q.7: The piece of land left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years is called_____________. (a) Barren land (b) Forest land (c) Grazing land (d) Fallow land

Correct Answer is Option (d). A land which is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year for increasing its fertility is known as the fallow land.

Q.8: Which one of the following conferences convened to discuss environmental protection and socio- economic development at the global level in 1992? (a) Kyoto Protocol (b) Montreal Protocol (c) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit (d) World Summit on Sustainable Development

Correct Answer is Option (c). In June 1992, for achieving sustainable development in the 21st century, more than 100 heads of states participated in the first International Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in Brazil to protect the environment and socioeconomic development at the global level.

Q.9: India has land under a variety of relief features. Which of the following features ensure perennial flow of some rivers, provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects? (a) Plains (b) Plateaus (c) Islands (d) Mountains

Correct Answer is Option (d).

Q.10: Which one of the following human activities  has  contributed  significantly in  land degradation? (a) Deforestation (b) Crop rotation (c) Shelter belts (d) Ploughing

Correct Answer is Option (a).

Q.11: Which one of the following countries adopted majoritarianism in their Constitution? (a) Nepal (b) India (c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh

Correct Answer is Option (c). Majoritarianism means that the majority community rules a country by their own by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority community.

Q.12: Identify the significant reason of power sharing from the following options. (a) Reduces socio- economic conflicts (b) Provides ethnic-cultural development (c) Allows people to enjoy specific rights (d) Restricts supremacy of one party

Correct Answer is Option (a). Power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.

Q.13: Apart from the Central and the State Government, Belgium  has a third kind of government as well. Identify this third kind of government from the following options: (a) Democratic Government (b) Socialist Government (c) Community Government (d) Liberal Government

Correct Answer is Option (c). Community government is an elected body by the people belonging to one language, one culture or any common property no matter where they live.

Q.14: Which of the following countries is an example of ‘Coming Together Federation’? (a) India (b) Sri Lanka (c) USA (d) Belgium

Correct Answer is Option (c). It is a federation in which several independent states come together on their own to form a bigger unit so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity, they can increase their security. It includes the USA, Switzerland and Australia.

Q.15: Why is the power shared amongst different organs of government called as horizontal distribution of power? Identify the correct reason. (a) It gives judiciary more power than legislature and executive. (b) It allows different organs of government to be placed at the same level (c) It gives representation to different ideologies at political level. (d) It influences and coordinates in the decision making process.

Correct Answer is Option (b). Power is shared among the legislature, executive and judiciary, this is known as horizontal distribution of power because it allows these organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.

Q.16: In India’s federal system, the Central and the State governments have the power to legislate on all those subjects which are included in the: (a) Union list (b) State list (c) Concurrent list (d) Residuary subjects

Correct Answer is Option (c). The Concurrent List contains subjects of common interest to both the Union as well as the States. The aim of the concurrent list is to ensure uniformity across the country where independently both Centre and State can legislate.

Q.17: Which of the following states of India enjoy special powers under article 371 A of the Constitution of India? (a) Nagaland (b) Rajasthan (c) Punjab (d) Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer is Option (a). States such as Assam, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram enjoy special powers under certain provisions of the Constitution of India (Article 371) due to their peculiar social and historical circumstances, especially to enjoy the protection of land rights of indigenous peoples, their culture and also preferential employment in government services.

Q.18: Which one of the following is an example of Primary sector activity? (a) Baking (b) Outsourcing (c) Farming (d) Banking

Correct Answer is Option (c). Primary activity includes those occupations which are closely related to man’s natural environment. 

Q.19: Which of the following measures the proportion of literate population in the seven and above age group? (a) Net Attendance Ratio (b) Enrolment Rate (c) Literacy Rate (d) Drop out Ratio

Correct Answer is Option (c).

Q.20: Which one of the following is the correct meaning of ‘Average Income’? (a) The total income of the country divided by its earning population. (b) The total income of the country divided by its total population. (c) The total income of all the residents of the country. (d) The total income from the domestic and foreign sources.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.21: Which one of the following best describes Human Development Index (HDI)? (a) Improvement in science, information and technology (b) Improvement in health, education and income (c) Improvement in information and communication (d) Improvement in investment, finance and technology

Correct Answer is Option (b). Human Development Index is a composite statistic of life expectancy, education and per capita income indicators, which is used to rank countries into four tiers of human development.

Q.22: “Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries.” Which of the following is the essence of this statement? (a) Economic development (b) Human Development (c) Sustainable Development (d) National Development

Correct Answer is Option (c). Sustainable development is maintaining a delicate balance between the human needs to improve lifestyle and feeling of well-being, and preserving natural resources and ecosystems, on which we and future generations depend.

Q.23: Which of the following examples fall under an organized sector? (a) A daily wage labourer working for a contractor. (b) An engineer getting all employment benefits. (c) A cleaning staff in a private school. (d) A tailor stitching clothes at his home.

Correct Answer is Option (b). Organized sector is one where the employment terms are fixed and regular, as well as the enterprises, are registered with the government.

Q.24: Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 states a guarantee of minimum 100 days of employment per year. If government is unable to fulfil these 100 days of an employment the government would have to ________________. Choose the correct option: (a) Pay the compensation in lieu of these days (b) Provide another scheme for the same (c) Pay at least 1/3 percent allowance (d) Provide health care as compensation

Correct Answer is Option (a). The mandate of the MGNREGA is to provide at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. This Act is an important step towards the realization of the right to work.

Section - B

(a) Marianna (b) Philip Viet (c) Germania (d) La Italia

Q.26: Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about Balkan nationalism? (i) The Balkan region became part of the conflict because of the Ottoman Empire. (ii) The region comprised of ethnic groups included Greeks, Serbs, Montenegro, etc. (iii) British and ethnic nationalities struggled to establish their identity. (a) (i) & (ii) (b) (ii) & (iii) (c) Only (ii) (d) Only (i)

Correct Answer is Option (a).   The European powers sighted the much-disturbed Balkan region to fulfill their imperialist goals. The Balkan region consisted of the following countries of our times - Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro.

Q.27: Why were the weavers in Silesia revolted against contractors in 1845? Identify the appropriate reason from the following options. (a) Contractors did not pay their dues (b) Contractors appointed few on high posts (c) Contractors used government policies (d) Contractors gave them loans on high interests

Q.28: Identify the major aspect that helped in the formation of a nation-state in Britain. (a) In 1688, the monarch of Britain fought war with English Parliament. (b) The Parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy. (c) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Ireland and Wales. (d) The formation of a nation-state in Britain was the result of many revolts.

Correct Answer is Option (b).  

Q.29: Identify the soil with the help of clues given below –

• develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall
• is low in humus content
• found in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu

(a) Forest soil (b) Yellow soil (c) Black soil (d) Laterite soi l

Correct Answer is Option (d). A. Forest Soil is loamy and silty in valley sides, while coarse grained in the upper slopes. B. Yellow Soil develops in areas of low rainfall or crystalline igneous rocks. C. Black Soil is rich in soil nutrients, such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime, but poor in phosphorus contents. D. Laterite soil develops in areas of high temperature and heavy rainfall.

Q.30: Which of the following categories of resources can we put Tidal energy in? (a) Renewable resources (b) Non-renewable resources (c) Actual resources (d) Potential resources

Correct Answer is Option (a). Renewable resources can be reproduced by physical, chemical or mechanical processes, such as: solar energy and wind energy .

Q.31: Consider the following statements on power sharing and select the answer using the codes given below: (i) It is good for democracy. (ii) It creates harmony in different groups. (iii) It brings transparency in the governance. (iv) It brings socio- political competition among parties. Options: (a) (i) , (ii) & (iii) (b) (ii) , (iii) & (iv) (c) (i) , (iii) & (iv) (d) (i) , (ii) & (iv)

Q.32: How Judiciary acts as an umpire in a federal nation? (a) Judiciary rules over Centre and State (b) Centre and Judiciary work collectively (c) Courts can change structure of Constitution (d) Courts use the power to interpret the Constitution

Correct Answer is Option (d). The highest court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers.

Q.33: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A):  Sri Lanka adopted Sinhala as the only official language of the state. Reason (R):  The government of Sri Lanka wanted to foster their culture, language   and religion. Options: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (a).  

Q.34: Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.

Choose the correct answer from the option given below: (a) I-4, II-3, III-1, IV-2 (b) I-3, II-4, III-1, IV-2 (c) I-4, II-1, III-3, IV-2 (d) I-4, II-2, III-1, IV-3

Correct Answer is Option (a). (i) Defence is included in Union List because we need a uniform policy on these matters throughout the country. (ii) Police is included in State list as states are entirely competent to enact laws on local importance matter. (iii) Education is included in Concurrent List as the Indian constitution has provisions to ensure that the state provides education to all its citizens. Education being a concurrent list subject enables the central government to legislate it in the manner suited to it. (iv) Information Technology is included in the Residuary Subjects as it was not present at the time when the Constitution was being written. Union Government has the powers to make laws regarding this subject.

Q.35: Anita is appearing in an examination conducted for recruitment to Central Government positions. In how many languages as mentioned in the 8th Schedule can she opt to take the exam in? Select the appropriate option. (a) 18 (b) 21 (c) 22 (d) 25

Correct Answer is Option (c). Scheduled languages are one that is included in the 8th schedule of the constitution of India. States have the freedom to use whatever language they decide to use for official purposes. English is not a scheduled language.

Q.36. Identify the administrative system of Indian Government with the help of the following information.

• Power shared between Central and State Governments to Local Governments.
• It is called as a third tier of the Government.
• The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with them.

Select the appropriate option from the following. (a) Federal system (b) Unitary Federal system (c) Decentralised system (d) Unitary system

Correct Answer is Option (c). The basic idea behind decentralization is that there are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the local level.

Q.37: Which of the following options prove that India is a quasi-federal state? (i) More powers with Centre (ii) Residuary subjects with Centre (iii) Equal subjects with Centre and State (iv) Currency and Railways with Centre (a) (i) , (iii) & (iv) (b) (i) , (ii) & (iv)   (c) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (d) (ii) , (iii) & (iv)

Correct Answer is Option (b).

Q.38: Identify the correct statement/s about the theory of Federalism in the Indian Constitution. (i) The Constitution declared India as a Union of States. (ii) Sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is basic to the structure of the Constitution. (iii) It is easy to make changes to this power sharing arrangement. (iv) The Parliament can on its own change this arrangement. (a) (i) & (ii) (b) (ii) & (iii) (c) (i) & (iii) (d) (ii) & (iv)

Q.39: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option . Assertion (A): Human Development mentions how much socio- economic development has happened in a country. Reason ( R): Comparison of national income of two countries explains Human Development Index. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (c). Human Development Report compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income.

Correct Answer is Option (a). Since Courier generate services rather than goods. Hence it falls in service sector which is also called the tertiary sector.  

Q.41: Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate answer from the given options :

Rita is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to different countries after every three years of service. She has been given an opportunity to choose any one out of the three countries mentioned in the table above as her next job location. She calculates average income of all these countries as per the given data and chooses to be transferred to Country A. Identify the reason for which Rita has chosen country A. (a) Most of its citizens are rich and stable (b) Has most equitable distribution of income (c) National income of its citizens is higher (d) Average income of its citizens is lower

Correct Answer is Option (b). In country A, the variation of income from Citizen 1 to Citizen 5 is very less as compared to other countries.

Q.42: Vijay is undernourished as his weight is 45 kgs and his height is 1.78 meters. Find out his Body Mass Index (BMI) from the following options. (a) 12.6 (b) 13.5 (c) 14.7 (d) 15.2

Correct Answer is Option (a). Body Mass Index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on height and weight that applies to adult men and women. Body Mass Index or BMI = Weight in Kg/ (Height in Meters)2 

Q.43: A woman works at a sweet shop in her village on a contract basis and gets meagre salary after working the entire day. She doesn’t get any holidays or paid leave, rather her employer deducts her salary whenever she is absent from work. Find out in which of the following sectors she is working? (a) Primary Sector (b) Service Sector (c) Organized Sector (d) Unorganised Sector

Correct Answer is Option (d). This woman works in an unorganised sector wherein his employment is not secure , he is generally low paid and is not regularly paid. His employers do not make provision for overtime payment, paid leaves or holidays, medical facilities, gratuity and provident fund.  

Q.44: According to 2017-2018 data, the share of different sectors in employment (percentage) in India was

• Primary   Sector   -   44%
• Secondary   Sector   -   25%
• Tertiary   Sector   -   31%

Out of the three sectors, why did the ratio of employment in Primary Sector high? Select the most suitable option from the following: (a) Workers in the Primary Sector are underemployed (b) Low job opportunities in Secondary Sector (c) Efforts of labour are not equivalent in all the sectors (d) Outsourcing of job opportunities in Secondary Sector

Correct Answer is Option (a). Population pressure, landlessness, environmental constraints, and technological changes in primary sector are some of the causes of underemployment in primary sector.  

Q.45: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion (A):  Crude oil reserves in the entire world are depleting, we need to find a sustainable substitute for it. Reason (R):  Oil and petrol prices are increasing day by day. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (b).   Human beings used them indiscriminately and this has led to the depletion of resources.

Q.46: A man is employed on a food processing farm where he has to do a lot of manual work. His wife and daughter also help him in his work on the farm every day. Of which type of employment is this an example? (a) Disguised employment (b) Seasonal employment (c) Over employment (d) Cyclical employment

Correct Answer is Option (a). When more people are working than its requirement then it is called disguised unemployment. So, even if we remove a few people from the job, the process of production will not be affected.

Section - C

(This section consists of two cases. There are total 12 questions in this section.  Attempt any 10 questions from this section.) I. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option: Grimms’ Fairy Tales is a familiar name in Germany. The brothers Jacob and Wilhelm Grimm were born in the German city of Hanau. While both of them studied law, they soon developed an interest in collecting old folktales. They spent six years travelling from village to village, talking to people and writing down fairy tales, which were handed down through the generations. These were popular both among children and adults. In 1812, they published their first collection of tales. Subsequently, both the brothers became active in liberal politics, especially the movement for freedom of the press. In the meantime, they also published a 33- volume dictionary of the German language. The Grimm brothers also saw French domination as a threat to German culture and believed that the folktales they had collected were expressions of a pure and authentic German spirit. They considered their projects of collecting folktales and developing the German language as part of the wider effort to oppose French domination and create a German national identity. Q.47: Why did the Grimm brothers give the tales a readable form without changing their folkloric character? Choose the correct options from the following (a) The collection enjoyed wide distribution in Germany. (b) It became a model for the collecting of fantasy tales. (c) It formed the basis for the science of the language. (d) People easily accepted their written adventurous tales.

Q.48: The impact of literary contributions of Grimm brothers was widespread. Identify the best suitable option depicting the same from the following: (A) Development of cities and towns (B) Setting up of new political parties (C) Promotion of ethnic belonging (D) Emergence of socialist ideology

Correct Answer is Option (c).  

Q.49: Fill in the blank from the given options The work of the Grimm Brothers influenced and inspired people to collect tales. They believed in a spirit of _ and considered it essential for the reflection of national identity. (a) Culturalism (b) Conservatism (c) Extremism (d) Liberalism

Correct Answer is Option (a). Culturalism is a way of life of a group of people--the behaviors, beliefs, values, and symbols that they accept, generally without thinking about them, and that are passed along by communication and imitation from one generation to the next.

Q.50: Why the foreign domination was considered a threat to nation building? Select the best suitable option from the following in reference to the context. (a) Exploitation of natural resources (b) Erosion of native values and ethos (c) Violence and mass killing of people (d) Spread of new diseases in the country

Correct Answer is Option (b). When another country or nation take over or control over other people to establish their supremacy then they lower their culture, feelings and ideologies.

Q.51: How were the Germans able to connect with their own culture? With reference to the above context, infer the appropriate option. (a) Through the feeling of formal way of communication (b) Through the feeling of oneness as European community (c) Through the feeling of collective belonging among nationals (d) Through the feeling of coherence in reference to mannerism

Correct Answer is Option (c). The folktales collected by Grimms’ brothers were expressions of a pure and authentic German spirit and  were popular both among children and adults.

Q.52: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. Assertion A: Regimes of 1815 did not tolerate criticism and dissent. Reason (R): Conservative regimes were autocratic. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.

II. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option: There has been a gradual shift from cultivation of food crops to cultivation of fruits, vegetables, oilseeds and industrial crops. This has led to the reduction in net sown area under cereals and pulses. With the growing population of India, the declining food production puts a big question mark over the country’s future food security. The competition for land between non-agricultural uses such as housing etc. and agriculture has resulted in reduction in the net sown area. The productivity of land has started showing a declining trend. Fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, which once showed dramatic results, are now being held responsible for degrading the soils. Periodic scarcity of water has led to reduction in area under irrigation. Inefficient water management has led to water logging and salinity. Q.53: One can infer from the above given information that marginal and small farmers have been pushed out of cultivation. Which one of the following is the prominent cause? (a) Food and fruit crops are expensive in market. (b) Shift to multifarious crops according to demand. (c) Periodic scarcity of water in many regions. (d) Soil degradation and extensive Green Revolution.

Correct Answer is Option (d).  

Q.54: Read the following statements and find the INCORRECT from the given options: (i)  Indian farmers are diversifying their cropping pattern. (ii)  They are shifting production from cereals to fruits, vegetables, etc. (iii)  Jute is in high demand in the Indian market. (a) (i) & (ii)   (b) (ii) & (iii) (c) (iii) Only (d) (iv) Only

Correct Answer is Option (a). Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops because fruits, medicinal herbs, flowers, vegetables, bio-diesel crops like jatropha and jojoba need much less irrigation than rice or sugarcane.

Q.55: According to thee information given above, there has been reduction in the net sown area under cereals and pulses. Identify the reason. (a) Lack of markets to sell cereals and pulses (b) Earn more income from non-agricultural sector (c) Need of huge labour in cultivating cereals and pulses (d) Availability of more profits from commercial crops

Correct Answer is Option (d). Farmers shift cultivation of food crops to cultivation of fruits, vegetables, oil-seeds and industrial crops as commercial crops are having more demand and their livelihood depends on them only because food crops are seasonal.

Q.56: ‘Fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, which once showed dramatic results, are now being held responsible for degrading the soil.’ Infer the positive effects of these inputs noticed earlier from the following statements: (a) These inputs have shown increased outputs and productivity. (b) These are integral to the process of reducing agrarian losses. (c) These inputs can cut the amount of harvestable produce. (d) These are the leading causes of mortality and health problems.

Correct Answer is Option (a). Because of the use of Chemical fertilizers, pesticides and high-yield crops, the agricultural industry was able to produce much larger quantities of food which increase in productivity as well with a similar amount of effort.

Q.57: There are states in India which are using fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides at excessive level to increase their agricultural production. Identify the states which are at prominent level from the following options. (a) Karnataka and Kerala (b) Haryana and Punjab (c) Punjab and Gujarat (d) Haryana and Telangana

Correct Answer is Option (b). Punjab and Haryana are the largest consumer of pesticides as they contribute highest share in agriculture production.

Q.58: Food production provides the base for food security and is a key determinant of food availability. Why is this trend shifting towards industrial crops? Choose the correct option in reference to the context. (a) To improve the land use pattern (b) To use intensive farming techniques (c) To improve the fertility of soil (d) To fetch more income and high profit

Correct Answer is Option (d) . If India imports cereals while exporting high-value commodities, it will be following successful economies like Italy, Israel and Chile. These countries exports farm products (fruits, olives, speciality seeds and wine) and import cereals.

Section - D

(Attempt both the Map based questions) I. On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information.

Q.59: On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a Dam. Identify it from the following options. (a) Salal (b) Bhakra-Nangal (c) Tehri (d) Rana Pratap Sagar

Correct Answer is Option (b). On the border of Punjab and Himachal Pradesh, Satluj and Beas river basin is marked as (A) where Bhakra Nangal dam is built.

Q.60: On the same map, ‘B’ is also marked as a major Tea cultivating state. Identify it from the following options. (a) Assam (b) Punjab (c) Bihar (d) Gujarat

Correct Answer is Option (a). Marked ‘B’ is an eastern state ‘Assam’. Major tea producing states are Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

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Case Study Questions Class 10 Science

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Download the app to get CBSE Sample Papers 2023-24, NCERT Solutions (Revised), Most Important Questions, Previous Year Question Bank, Mock Tests, and Detailed Notes.

Download Case study questions for CBSE class 10 Science in PDF format from the myCBSEguide App . We have the new pattern case study-based questions for free download. Class 10 Science case study questions

This article will guide you through:

What are case study questions?

• Sample Papers with Case Study questions
• Class 10 Science Case Study question examples
• How to get case-based questions for free?
• How to attempt the case-based questions in Science?

Questions based on case studies are some real-life examples. The questions are asked based on a given paragraph i.e. Case Study.  Usually, 4-5 questions are asked on the basis of the given passage. In most cases, these are either MCQs or assertion & reason type questions. Let’s take an example to understand. There is one paragraph on how nitrogen is generated in the atmosphere. On the basis of this paragraph, the board asks a few objective-type questions. In other words, it is very similar to the unseen passages given in language papers. But the real cases may be different. So, read this article till the end to understand it thoroughly.

What is CBE?

CBSE stands for competency-based education. The case study questions are part of this CBE. The purpose of CBE is to demonstrate the learning outcomes and attain proficiency in particular competencies.

Questions on Real-life Situations

As discussed the case study questions are based on real-life situations. Especially for grade 10 science, it is very essential to have the practical knowledge to solve such questions. Here on the myCBSEguide app, we have given many such case study paragraphs that are directly related to real-life implications of the knowledge.

Sample Papers with Case Study Questions

Class 10 Science Sample Papers with case study questions are available in the myCBSEguide App . There are 4 such questions (Q.No.17 to 20) in the CBSE model question paper. If you analyze the format, you will find that the MCQs are very easy to answer. So, we suggest you, read the given paragraph carefully and then start answering the questions. In some cases, you will find that the question is not asked directly from the passage but is based on the concept that is discussed there. That’s why it is very much important to understand the background of the case study paragraph.

CBSE Case Study Sample Papers

You can download CBSE case study sample papers from the myCBSEguide App or Student Dashboard. Here is the direct link to access it.

Case Study Question Bank

As we mentioned that case study questions are coming in your exams for the last few years. You can get them in all previous year question papers issued by CBSE for class 1o Science. Here is the direct link to get them too.

Class 10 Science Case Study Question Examples

As you have already gone through the four questions provided in the CBSE model question paper , we are proving you with other examples of the case-based questions in the CBSE class 10 Science. If you wish to get similar questions, you can download the myCBSEguide App and access the Sample question papers with case study-type questions.

Case-based Question -1

Read the following and answer any four questions: Salt of a strong acid and strong base is neutral with a pH value of 7. NaCl common salt is formed by a combination of hydrochloride and sodium hydroxide solution. This is the salt that is used in food. Some salt is called rock salt bed of rack salt was formed when seas of bygone ages dried up. The common salt thus obtained is an important raw material for various materials of daily use, such as sodium hydroxide, baking soda, washing soda, and bleaching powder.

• Phosphoric acid
• Carbonic acid
• Hydrochloric acid
• Sulphuric acid
• Blue vitriol
• Washing soda
• Baking soda
• Bleaching powder

Case-based Question -2

• V 1  + V 2  + V 3
• V 1  – V 2  +V 2
• None of these
• same at every point of the circuit
• different at every point of the circuit
• can not be determined
• 20 3 Ω 203Ω
• 15 2 Ω 152Ω

Case-based Question -3

• pure strips
• impure copper
• refined copper
• none of these
• insoluble impurities
• soluble impurities
• impure metal
• bottom of cathode
• bottom of anode

How to Attempt the Case-Based Questions in Science?

Before answering this question, let’s read the text given in question number 17 of the CBSE Model Question Paper.

All living cells require energy for various activities. This energy is available by the breakdown of simple carbohydrates either using oxygen or without using oxygen.

See, there are only two sentences and CBSE is asking you 5 questions based on these two sentences. Now let’s check the first questions given there.

Energy in the case of higher plants and animals is obtained by a) Breathing b) Tissue respiration c) Organ respiration d) Digestion of food

Now let us know if you can relate the question to the paragraph directly. The two sentences are about energy and how it is obtained. But neither the question nor the options have any similar text in the paragraph.

So the conclusion is, in most cases, you will not get direct answers from the passage. You will get only an idea about the concept. If you know it, you can answer it but reading the paragraph even 100 times is not going to help you.

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